CompTIA Network+ Certification v13.0 (N10-006)

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Total 464 questions

A system administrator wants to update a web-based application to the latest version.
Which of the following procedures should the system administrator perform FIRST?

  • A. Remove all user accounts on the server
  • B. Isolate the server logically on the network
  • C. Block all HTTP traffic to the server
  • D. Install the software in a test environment


Answer : D

Explanation:
We should test the new version of the application in a test/lab environment first. This way any potential issues with thenew software would not affect the production environment.
Set up a test lab on an isolated network in your organization. Do not set up your test lab in your production environment.

A company has implemented the capability to send all log files to a central location by utilizing an encrypted channel. The log files are sent to this location in order to be reviewed.
A recent exploit has caused the company's encryption to become unsecure. Which of the following would be required to resolve the exploit?

  • A. Utilize a FTP service
  • B. Install recommended updates
  • C. Send all log files through SMTP
  • D. Configure the firewall to block port 22


Answer : B

Explanation:
If the encryption is unsecure then we must look forencryption software updates or patches.
If they are available we must install them.
As vulnerabilities are discovered, the vendors of the operating systems or applications often respond by releasing a patch. A patch is designed to correct a known bug or fix a known vulnerability in a piece of software.
A patch differs from an update, which, in addition to fixing a known bug or vulnerability, adds one or more features to the software being updated.

A technician would like to track the improvement of the network infrastructure after upgrades. Which of the following should the technician implement to have an accurate comparison?

  • A. Regression test
  • B. Speed test
  • C. Baseline
  • D. Statement of work


Answer : C

Explanation:
In networking, baseline can refer to the standard level of performance ofa certain device or to the normal operating capacity for your whole network. High-quality documentation should include a baseline for network performance, because you and your client need to know what normal looks like in order to detect problems beforethey develop into disasters.
A network baseline delimits the amount of available bandwidth available and when. For networks and networked devices, baselines include information about four key components:

Processor -

Memory -
Hard-disk (or other storage) subsystem

Network adapter or subsystem -

The administrator's network has OSPF for the internal routing protocol. One port going out to the Internet is congested. The data is going out to the Internet, but queues up before sending. Which of the following would resolve this issue?
Output:
Fast Ethernet 0 is up, line protocol is up
Int ip address is 10.20.130.5/25
MTU 1500 bytes, BW10000 kbit, DLY 100 usec
Reliability 255/255, Tx load 1/255, Rx load 1/255
Encapsulation ospf, loopback not set

Keep alive 10 -
Half duplex, 100Mb/s, 100 Base Tx/Fx

Received 1052993 broadcasts -
0 input errors
983881 packets output, 768588 bytes
0 output errors, 0 collisions, 0 resets

  • A. Set the loopback address
  • B. Change the IP address
  • C. Change the slash notation
  • D. Change duplex to full


Answer : D

Explanation:
From the output we see that the half-duplex is configured. This would not use the full capacity of ports on the network. By changing to full duplex the throughput would be doubled.
Note: All communications are either half-duplex or full-duplex. During half-duplex communication, a device can either send communication or receive communication, but not both at the same time. In full-duplex communication, both devices can send and receive communication at the same time. This means that the effective throughput is doubled and communication is much more efficient.

Which of the following communication technologies would MOST likely be used to increase bandwidth over an existing fiber optic network by combining multiple signals at different wavelengths?

  • A. DWDM
  • B. SONET
  • C. ADSL
  • D. LACP


Answer : A

Explanation:
Dense wavelength-division multiplexing (DWDM) is a high-speed optical network type commonly used in MANs (metropolitan area networks).DWDM uses as many as 32 light wavelengths on a single fiber, where each wavelength can support as many as 160 simultaneous transmissions using more than eight active wavelengths per fiber.

A desktop computer is connected to the network and receives an APIPA address but is unable to reach the VLAN gateway of 10.10.100.254. Other PCs in the VLAN subnet are able to reach the Internet. Which of the following is MOST likely the source of the problem?

  • A. 802.1q is not configured on the switch port
  • B. APIPA has been misconfigured on the VLAN
  • C. Bad SFP in the PC's 10/100 NIC
  • D. OS updates havenot been installed


Answer : A

Explanation:
APIPA addresses are self-configured and are used when the client is unable to get proper
IP configuration from a DHCP server. One possible source of this problem is that switch port, to which the computer is connected, is misconfigured. The 802.1q protocol is used to configure VLAN trunking on switch ports.

A system administrator has been tasked to ensure that the software team is not affecting the production software when developing enhancements. The software that is being updated is on a very short SDLC and enhancements must be developed rapidly. These enhancements must be approved before being deployed. Which of the following will mitigate production outages before the enhancements are deployed?

  • A. Implement an environment to test the enhancements.
  • B. Implement ACLs that only allow management access to the enhancements.
  • C. Deploy an IPS on the production network.
  • D. Move the software team's workstations to the DMZ.


Answer : A

Explanation:
Environments are controlled areas where systems developers can build, distribute, install, configure, test, and execute systems that move through the Software Development Life
Cycle (SDLC). The enhancements can be deployed and tested in a test environment before they are installed in the production environment.

A technician is configuring a managed switch and needs to enable 802.3af. Which of the following should the technician enable?

  • A. PoE
  • B. Port bonding
  • C. VLAN
  • D. Trunking


Answer : A

Explanation:
Power over Ethernet (PoE) is defined by the IEEE 802.3af and 802.3at standards.
PoE allows an Ethernet switch to provide power to an attached device (for example, a wireless access point, security camera, orIP phone) by applying power to the same wires in a UTP cable that are used to transmit and receive data.

Topic 3, Network security -

An organization notices a large amount of malware and virus incidents at one satellite office, but hardly any at another. All users at both sites are running the same company image and receive the same group policies. Which of the following has MOST likely been implemented at the site with the fewest security issues?

  • A. Consent to monitoring
  • B. Business continuity measures
  • C. Vulnerability scanning
  • D. End-user awareness training


Answer : D

Explanation:
Users should have security awareness training and should have all accepted and signed acceptable usepolicy (AUP) agreements. User awareness training is one of the most significant countermeasures the company can implement.

A company wants to make sure that users are required to authenticate prior to being allowed on the network. Which of the following is the BEST way to accomplish this?

  • A. 802.1x
  • B. 802.1p
  • C. Single sign-on
  • D. Kerberos


Answer : A

Explanation:
For security purposes, some switchesrequire users to authenticate themselves (that is, provide credentials, such as a username and password, to prove who they are) before gaining access to the rest of the network. A standards-based method of enforcing user authentication is IEEE 802.1X.

Packet analysis reveals multiple GET and POST requests from an internal host to a URL without any response from the server. Which of the following is the BEST explanation that describes this scenario?

  • A. Compromised system
  • B. Smurf attack
  • C. SQL injection attack
  • D. Man-in-the-middle


Answer : A

Explanation:
As the extra unexplainable traffic comes from an internal host on your network we can assume that this host has been compromised.
If your system has been compromised, somebody is probably using your machine--possibly to scan andfind other machines to compromise

A technician is setting up a computer lab. Computers on the same subnet need to communicate with each other using peer to peer communication. Which of the following would the technician MOST likely configure?

  • A. Hardware firewall
  • B. Proxy server
  • C. Software firewall
  • D. GRE tunneling


Answer : C

Explanation:
A host-based firewall is a computer running firewall softwarethat can protect the computer itself. A software firewall would be the most cost effective in a lab scenario.

A network technician was tasked to respond to a compromised workstation. The technician documented the scene, took the machine offline, and left the PC under a cubicle overnight.
Which of the following steps of incident handling has been incorrectly performed?

  • A. Document the scene
  • B. Forensics report
  • C. Evidence collection
  • D. Chain of custody


Answer : D

Explanation:
To verify the integrity of data since a security incident occurred, you need to be able to show a chain of custody.
A chain of custody documents who has been in possession of the data (evidence) since a security breach occurred. A well-prepared organization will have process and procedures that are used when an incident occurs.
A plan should include first responders securing the area and then escalating to senior management and authorities when required by policy or law. The chain of custody alsoincludes documentation of the scene, collection of evidence, and maintenance, e- discovery (which is theelectronic aspect of identifying, collecting, and producing electronically stored information), transportation of data, forensics reporting, and a process to preserve all forms of evidence and data when litigation is expected. The preservation of the evidence, data, and details is referred to as legal hold.

Which of the following physical security controls prevents an attacker from gaining access to a network closet?

  • A. CCTVs
  • B. Proximity readers
  • C. Motion sensors
  • D. IP cameras


Answer : B

Explanation:
A proximity card is a physical card which used to get access to a physical area such as a network closet.
It is a "contactless" smart card which can beread without inserting it into a reader device, as required by earlier magnetic stripe cards such as credit cards and "contact" type smart cards. The proximity cards are part of the Contactless card technologies. Held near an electronic reader for a momentthey enable the identification of an encoded number.
Note: Physical security is the protection of personnel, hardware, programs, networks, and data from physical circumstances and events that could cause serious losses or damage to an enterprise, agency,or institution. This includes protection from fire, natural disasters, burglary, theft, vandalism, and terrorism.

Which of the following is a security benefit gained from setting up a guest wireless network?

  • A. Optimized device bandwidth
  • B. Isolatedcorporate resources
  • C. Smaller ACL changes
  • D. Reduced password resets


Answer : B

Explanation:
A wireless guest network could be set up so that it has limited access (no access to local resources) but does provide Internet access for guest users. The corporate resources would be inaccessible (isolated) from the guest network.

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Total 464 questions