Implementing and Operating Cisco Security Core Technologies v1.0 (350-701)

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Total 102 questions

An MDM provides which two advantages to an organization with regards to device management? (Choose two.)

  • A. asset inventory management
  • B. allowed application management
  • C. Active Directory group policy management
  • D. network device management
  • E. critical device management


Answer : AB

Which Talos reputation center allows you to track the reputation of IP addresses for email and web traffic?

  • A. IP Blacklist Center
  • B. File Reputation Center
  • C. AMP Reputation Center
  • D. IP and Domain Reputation Center


Answer : D

Under which two circumstances is a CoA issued? (Choose two.)

  • A. A new authentication rule was added to the policy on the Policy Service node.
  • B. An endpoint is deleted on the Identity Service Engine server.
  • C. A new Identity Source Sequence is created and referenced in the authentication policy.
  • D. An endpoint is profiled for the first time.
  • E. A new Identity Service Engine server is added to the deployment with the Administration persona.


Answer : BD

Reference:
https://www.cisco.com/en/US/docs/security/ise/1.0/user_guide/ise10_prof_pol.html

Which solution combines Cisco IOS and IOS XE components to enable administrators to recognize applications, collect and send network metrics to Cisco Prime and other third-party management tools, and prioritize application traffic?

  • A. Cisco Security Intelligence
  • B. Cisco Application Visibility and Control
  • C. Cisco Model Driven Telemetry
  • D. Cisco DNA Center


Answer : B

Which two endpoint measures are used to minimize the chances of falling victim to phishing and social engineering attacks? (Choose two.)

  • A. Patch for cross-site scripting.
  • B. Perform backups to the private cloud.
  • C. Protect against input validation and character escapes in the endpoint.
  • D. Install a spam and virus email filter.
  • E. Protect systems with an up-to-date antimalware program.


Answer : DE

An engineer used a posture check on a Microsoft Windows endpoint and discovered that the MS17-010 patch was not installed, which left the endpoint vulnerable to WannaCry ransomware. Which two solutions mitigate the risk of this ransomware infection? (Choose two.)

  • A. Configure a posture policy in Cisco Identity Services Engine to install the MS17-010 patch before allowing access on the network.
  • B. Set up a profiling policy in Cisco Identity Service Engine to check and endpoint patch level before allowing access on the network.
  • C. Configure a posture policy in Cisco Identity Services Engine to check that an endpoint patch level is met before allowing access on the network.
  • D. Configure endpoint firewall policies to stop the exploit traffic from being allowed to run and replicate throughout the network.
  • E. Set up a well-defined endpoint patching strategy to ensure that endpoints have critical vulnerabilities patched in a timely fashion.


Answer : AC

DRAG DROP -
Drag and drop the steps from the left into the correct order on the right to enable AppDynamics to monitor an EC2 instance in Amazon Web Services.
Select and Place:




Answer :

Why would a user choose an on-premises ESA versus the CES solution?

  • A. Sensitive data must remain onsite.
  • B. Demand is unpredictable.
  • C. The server team wants to outsource this service.
  • D. ESA is deployed inline.


Answer : A

Which technology must be used to implement secure VPN connectivity among company branches over a private IP cloud with any-to-any scalable connectivity?

  • A. DMVPN
  • B. FlexVPN
  • C. IPsec DVTI
  • D. GET VPN


Answer : D

Which Cisco solution does Cisco Umbrella integrate with to determine if a URL is malicious?

  • A. AMP
  • B. AnyConnect
  • C. DynDNS
  • D. Talos


Answer : D

What is the purpose of the Decrypt for Application Detection feature within the WSA Decryption options?

  • A. It decrypts HTTPS application traffic for unauthenticated users.
  • B. It alerts users when the WSA decrypts their traffic.
  • C. It decrypts HTTPS application traffic for authenticated users.
  • D. It provides enhanced HTTPS application detection for AsyncOS.


Answer : D

Reference:
https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/security/wsa/wsa11-7/user_guide/b_WSA_UserGuide_11_7/b_WSA_UserGuide_11_7_chapter_01011.html

What is the primary role of the Cisco Email Security Appliance?

  • A. Mail Submission Agent
  • B. Mail Transfer Agent
  • C. Mail Delivery Agent
  • D. Mail User Agent


Answer : B

Which two features of Cisco DNA Center are used in a Software Defined Network solution? (Choose two.)

  • A. accounting
  • B. assurance
  • C. automation
  • D. authentication
  • E. encryption


Answer : BC

Reference:
https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/products/cloud-systems-management/dna-center/index.html

Which cloud service model offers an environment for cloud consumers to develop and deploy applications without needing to manage or maintain the underlying cloud infrastructure?

  • A. PaaS
  • B. XaaS
  • C. IaaS
  • D. SaaS


Answer : A

What is a required prerequisite to enable malware file scanning for the Secure Internet Gateway?

  • A. Enable IP Layer enforcement.
  • B. Activate the Advanced Malware Protection license
  • C. Activate SSL decryption.
  • D. Enable Intelligent Proxy.


Answer : D

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Total 102 questions