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Total 400 questions
You create a new pluggable database, HR_PDB, from the seed database. Which three tablespaces are created by default in HR_PDB? (Choose three.)
- A. SYSTEM
- B. SYSAUX
- C. EXAMPLE
- D. UNDO
- E. TEMP
- F. USERS
Answer : ABE
Explanation:
* A PDB would have its SYSTEM, SYSAUX, TEMP tablespaces.It can also contains other user created tablespaces in it.
* Oracle Database creates both the SYSTEM and SYSAUX tablespaces as part of every database.
* tablespace_datafile_clauses
Use these clauses to specify attributes for all data files comprising the SYSTEM and SYSAUX tablespaces in the seed PDB.
Incorrect:
Not D: a PDB can not have an undo tablespace. Instead, it uses the undo tablespace belonging to the CDB.
Note:
* Example:
CONN pdb_admin@pdb1 -
SELECT tablespace_name FROM dba_tablespaces;
TABLESPACE_NAME -
------------------------------
SYSTEM -
SYSAUX -
TEMP -
USERS -
SQL>
Which two statements are true about variable extent size support for large ASM files? (Choose two.)
- A. The metadata used to track extents in SGA is reduced.
- B. Rebalance operations are completed faster than with a fixed extent size
- C. An ASM Instance automatically allocates an appropriate extent size.
- D. Resync operations are completed faster when a disk comes online after being taken offline.
- E. Performance improves in a stretch cluster configuration by reading from a local copy of an extent.
Answer : AC
Explanation:
A: Variable size extents enable support for larger ASM datafiles, reduce SGA memory requirements for very large databases (A), and improve performance for file create and open operations.
C: You don't have to worry about the sizes; the ASM instance automatically allocates the appropriate extent size.
Note:
* The contents of ASM files are stored in a disk group as a set, or collection, of data extents that are stored on individual disks within disk groups. Each extent resides on an individual disk. Extents consist of one or more allocation units (AU). To accommodate increasingly larger files, ASM uses variable size extents.
* The size of the extent map that defines a file can be smaller by a factor of 8 and 64 depending on the file size. The initial extent size is equal to the allocation unit size and it increases by a factor of 8 and 64 at predefined thresholds. This feature is automatic for newly created and resized datafiles when the disk group compatibility attributes are set to Oracle Release 11 or higher.
You executed a DROP USER CASCADE on an Oracle 11g release 1 database and immediately realized that you forgot to copy the OCA.EXAM_RESULTS table to the OCP schema.
The RECYCLE_BIN enabled before the DROP USER was executed and the OCP user has been granted the FLASHBACK ANY TABLE system privilege.
What is the quickest way to recover the contents of the OCA.EXAM_RESULTS table to the OCP schema?
- A. Execute FLASHBACK TABLE OCA.EXAM_RESULTS TO BEFORE DROP RENAME TO OCP.EXAM_RESULTS; connected as SYSTEM.
- B. Recover the table using traditional Tablespace Point In Time Recovery.
- C. Recover the table using Automated Tablespace Point In Time Recovery.
- D. Recovery the table using Database Point In Time Recovery.
- E. Execute FLASHBACK TABLE OCA.EXAM_RESULTS TO BEFORE DROP RENAME TO EXAM_RESULTS; connected as the OCP user.
Answer : C
Explanation:
RMAN tablespace point-in-time recovery (TSPITR).
Recovery Manager (RMAN) TSPITR enables quick recovery of one or more tablespaces in a database to an earlier time without affecting the rest of the tablespaces and objects in the database.
Fully Automated (the default)
In this mode, RMAN manages the entire TSPITR process including the auxiliary instance. You specify the tablespaces of the recovery set, an auxiliary destination, the target time, and you allow RMAN to manage all other aspects of TSPITR.
The default mode is recommended unless you specifically need more control over the location of recovery set files after TSPITR, auxiliary set files during TSPITR, channel settings and parameters or some other aspect of your auxiliary instance.
In your multitenant container database (CDB) containing pluggable database (PDBs), the HR user executes the following commands to create and grant privileges on a procedure:
CREATE OR REPLACE PROCEDURE create_test_v (v_emp_id NUMBER, v_ename VARCHAR2, v_SALARY NUMBER, v_dept_id NUMBER)
BEGIN -
INSERT INTO hr.test VALUES (V_emp_id, V_ename, V_salary, V_dept_id);
END;
/
GRANT EXECUTE ON CREATE_TEST TO john, jim, smith, king;
How can you prevent users having the EXECUTE privilege on the CREATE_TEST procedure from inserting values into tables on which they do not have any privileges?
- A. Create the CREATE_TEST procedure with definer"™s rights.
- B. Grant the EXECUTE privilege to users with GRANT OPTION on the CREATE_TEST procedure.
- C. Create the CREATE_TEST procedure with invoker"™s rights.
- D. Create the CREATE_TEST procedure as part of a package and grant users the EXECUTE privilege the package.
Answer : C
Explanation:
If a program unit does not need to be executed with the escalated privileges of the definer, you should specify that the program unit executes with the privileges of the caller, also known as the invoker. Invoker's rights can mitigate the risk of SQL injection.
Incorrect:
Not A: By default, stored procedures and SQL methods execute with the privileges of their owner, not their current user. Such definer-rights subprograms are bound to the schema in which they reside. not B: Using the GRANT option, a user can grant an Object privilege to another user or to PUBLIC.
You created a new database using the "create database" statement without specifying the "ENABLE PLUGGABLE" clause.
What are two effects of not using the "ENABLE PLUGGABLE database" clause? (Choose two.)
- A. The database is created as a non-CDB and can never contain a PDB.
- B. The database is treated as a PDB and must be plugged into an existing multitenant container database (CDB).
- C. The database is created as a non-CDB and can never be plugged into a CDB.
- D. The database is created as a non-CDB but can be plugged into an existing CDB.
- E. The database is created as a non-CDB but will become a CDB whenever the first PDB is plugged in.
Answer : AD
Explanation:
A (not B,not E): The CREATE DATABASE ... ENABLE PLUGGABLE DATABASE SQL statement creates a new CDB. If you do not specify the ENABLE
PLUGGABLE DATABASE clause, then the newly created database is a non-CDB and can never contain PDBs.
D: You can create a PDB by plugging in a Non-CDB as a PDB.
The following graphic depicts the options for creating a PDB:
Incorrect:
Not E: For the duration of its existence, a database is either a CDB or a non-CDB. You cannot transform a non-CDB into a CDB or vice versa. You must define a database as a CDB at creation, and then create PDBs within this CDB.
What is the effect of specifying the "ENABLE PLUGGABLE DATABASE" clause in a "CREATE DATABASE" statement?
- A. It will create a multitenant container database (CDB) with only the root opened.
- B. It will create a CDB with root opened and seed read only.
- C. It will create a CDB with root and seed opened and one PDB mounted.
- D. It will create a CDB that must be plugged into an existing CDB.
- E. It will create a CDB with root opened and seed mounted.
Answer : B
Explanation:
* The CREATE DATABASE ... ENABLE PLUGGABLE DATABASE SQL statement creates a new CDB. If you do not specify the ENABLE PLUGGABLE
DATABASE clause, then the newly created database is a non-CDB and can never contain PDBs.
Along with the root (CDB$ROOT), Oracle Database automatically creates a seed PDB (PDB$SEED). The following graphic shows a newly created CDB:
* Creating a PDB
Rather than constructing the data dictionary tables that define an empty PDB from scratch, and then populating its Obj$ and Dependency$ tables, the empty PDB is created when the CDB is created. (Here, we use empty to mean containing no customer-created artifacts.) It is referred to as the seed PDB and has the name
PDB$Seed. Every CDB non-negotiably contains a seed PDB; it is non-negotiably always open in read-only mode. This has no conceptual significance; rather, it is just an optimization device. The create PDB operation is implemented as a special case of the clone PDB operation.
You have installed two 64G flash devices to support the Database Smart Flash Cache feature on your database server that is running on Oracle Linux.
You have set the DB_SMART_FLASH_FILE parameter:
DB_FLASH_CACHE_FILE= "˜/dev/flash_device_1 "˜,"™ /dev/flash_device_2"™
How should the DB_FLASH_CACHE_SIZE be configured to use both devices?
- A. Set DB_FLASH_CACHE_ZISE = 64G.
- B. Set DB_FLASH_CACHE_ZISE = 64G, 64G
- C. Set DB_FLASH_CACHE_ZISE = 128G.
- D. DB_FLASH_CACHE_SIZE is automatically configured by the instance at startup.
Answer : B
Explanation:
* Smart Flash Cache concept is not new in Oracle 12C - DB Smart Flash Cache in Oracle 11g.
In this release Oracle has made changes related to both initialization parameters used by DB Smart Flash cache. Now you can define many files|devices and its sizes for "Database Smart Flash Cache" area. In previous releases only one file|device could be defined.
DB_FLASH_CACHE_FILE = /dev/sda, /dev/sdb, /dev/sdc
DB_FLASH_CACHE_SIZE = 32G, 32G, 64G
So above settings defines 3 devices which will be in use by "DB Smart Flash Cache"
/dev/sda "" size 32G
/dev/sdb "" size 32G
/dev/sdc "" size 64G
New view V$FLASHFILESTAT "" it"™s used to determine the cumulative latency and read counts of each file|device and compute the average latency
Examine the following parameters for a database instance:
MEMORY_MAX_TARGET=0 -
MEMORY_TARGET=0 -
SGA_TARGET=0 -
PGA_AGGREGATE_TARGET=500m -
Which three initialization parameters are not controlled by Automatic Shared Memory Management (ASMM)? (Choose three.)
- A. LOG_BUFFER
- B. SORT_AREA_SIZE
- C. JAVA_POOL_SIZE
- D. STREAMS_POOL_SIZE
- E. DB_16K_CACHE_SZIE
- F. DB_KEEP_CACHE_SIZE
Answer : AEF
Explanation:
Manually Sized SGA Components that Use SGA_TARGET Space
SGA Component, Initialization Parameter
/ The log buffer
LOG_BUFFER -
/ The keep and recycle buffer caches
DB_KEEP_CACHE_SIZE -
DB_RECYCLE_CACHE_SIZE -
/ Nonstandard block size buffer caches
DB_nK_CACHE_SIZE -
Note:
* In addition to setting SGA_TARGET to a nonzero value, you must set to zero all initialization parameters listed in the table below to enable full automatic tuning of the automatically sized SGA components.
* Table, Automatically Sized SGA Components and Corresponding Parameters
Examine the contents of SQL loader control file:
Which three statements are true regarding the SQL* Loader operation performed using the control file? (Choose three.)
- A. An EMP table is created if a table does not exist. Otherwise, if the EMP table is appended with the loaded data.
- B. The SQL* Loader data file myfile1.dat has the column names for the EMP table.
- C. The SQL* Loader operation fails because no record terminators are specified.
- D. Field names should be the first line in the both the SQL* Loader data files.
- E. The SQL* Loader operation assumes that the file must be a stream record format file with the normal carriage return string as the record terminator.
Answer : ABE
Explanation:
A: The APPEND keyword tells SQL*Loader to preserve any preexisting data in the table. Other options allow you to delete preexisting data, or to fail with an error if the table is not empty to begin with.
B (not D):
Note:
* SQL*Loader-00210: first data file is empty, cannot process the FIELD NAMES record
Cause: The data file listed in the next message was empty. Therefore, the FIELD NAMES FIRST FILE directive could not be processed.
Action: Check the listed data file and fix it. Then retry the operation
E:
* A comma-separated values (CSV) (also sometimes called character-separated values, because the separator character does not have to be a comma) file stores tabular data (numbers and text) in plain-text form. Plain text means that the file is a sequence of characters, with no data that has to be interpreted instead, as binary numbers. A CSV file consists of any number of records, separated by line breaks of some kind; each record consists of fields, separated by some other character or string, most commonly a literal comma or tab. Usually, all records have an identical sequence of fields.
* Fields with embedded commas must be quoted.
Example:
1997,Ford,E350,"Super, luxurious truck"
Note:
* SQL*Loader is a bulk loader utility used for moving data from external files into the Oracle database.
In your multitenant container database (CDB) containing pluggable database (PDBs), you granted the CREATE TABLE privilege to the common user C # #
A_ADMIN in root and all PDBs. You execute the following command from the root container:
SQL > REVOKE create table FROM C # # A_ADMIN;
What is the result?
- A. It executes successfully and the CREATE TABLE privilege is revoked from C # # A_ADMIN in root only.
- B. It fails and reports an error because the CONTAINER=ALL clause is not used.
- C. It excludes successfully and the CREATE TABLE privilege is revoked from C # # A_ADMIN in root and all PDBs.
- D. It fails and reports an error because the CONTAINER=CURRENT clause is not used.
- E. It executes successfully and the CREATE TABLE privilege is revoked from C # # A_ADMIN in all PDBs.
Answer : A
Explanation:
REVOKE ..FROM -
If the current container is the root:
/ Specify CONTAINER = CURRENT to revoke a locally granted system privilege, object privilege, or role from a common user or common role. The privilege or role is revoked from the user or role only in the root. This clause does not revoke privileges granted with CONTAINER = ALL.
/ Specify CONTAINER = ALL to revoke a commonly granted system privilege, object privilege on a common object, or role from a common user or common role.
The privilege or role is revoked from the user or role across the entire CDB. This clause can revoke only a privilege or role granted with CONTAINER = ALL from the specified common user or common role. This clause does not revoke privileges granted locally with CONTAINER = CURRENT. However, any locally granted privileges that depend on the commonly granted privilege being revoked are also revoked.
If you omit this clause, then CONTAINER = CURRENT is the default.
Which two statements are true concerning the Resource Manager plans for individual pluggable databases (PDB plans) in a multitenant container database
(CDB)? (Choose two.)
- A. If no PDB plan is enabled for a pluggable database, then all sessions for that PDB are treated to an equal degree of the resource share of that PDB.
- B. In a PDB plan, subplans may be used with up to eight consumer groups.
- C. If a PDB plan is enabled for a pluggable database, then resources are allocated to consumer groups across all PDBs in the CDB.
- D. If no PDB plan is enabled for a pluggable database, then the PDB share in the CDB plan is dynamically calculated.
- E. If a PDB plan is enabled for a pluggable database, then resources are allocated to consumer groups based on the shares provided to the PDB in the CDB plan and the shares provided to the consumer groups in the PDB plan.
Answer : AE
Explanation:
A: Setting a PDB resource plan is optional. If not specified, all sessions within the PDB are treated equally.
*
In a non-CDB database, workloads within a database are managed with resource plans.
In a PDB, workloads are also managed with resource plans, also called PDB resource plans.
The functionality is similar except for the following differences:
/ Non-CDB Database
Multi-level resource plans -
Up to 32 consumer groups -
Subplans -
/ PDB Database
Single-level resource plans only
Up to 8 consumer groups -
(not B) No subplans
You use a recovery catalog for maintaining your database backups.
You execute the following command:
$rman TARGET / CATALOG rman / cat@catdb
RMAN > BACKUP VALIDATE DATABASE ARCHIVELOG ALL;
Which two statements are true? (Choose two.)
- A. Corrupted blocks, if any, are repaired.
- B. Checks are performed for physical corruptions.
- C. Checks are performed for logical corruptions.
- D. Checks are performed to confirm whether all database files exist in correct locations
- E. Backup sets containing both data files and archive logs are created.
Answer : BD
Explanation:
B (not C): You can validate that all database files and archived redo logs can be backed up by running a command as follows:
RMAN> BACKUP VALIDATE DATABASE ARCHIVELOG ALL;
This form of the command would check for physical corruption. To check for logical corruption,
RMAN> BACKUP VALIDATE CHECK LOGICAL DATABASE ARCHIVELOG ALL;
D: You can use the VALIDATE keyword of the BACKUP command to do the following:
Check datafiles for physical and logical corruption
Confirm that all database files exist and are in the correct locations.
Note:
You can use the VALIDATE option of the BACKUP command to verify that database files exist and are in the correct locations (D), and have no physical or logical corruptions that would prevent RMAN from creating backups of them. When performing a BACKUP...VALIDATE, RMAN reads the files to be backed up in their entirety, as it would during a real backup. It does not, however, actually produce any backup sets or image copies (Not A, not E).
Which three statements are true concerning the multitenant architecture? (Choose three.)
- A. Each pluggable database (PDB) has its own set of background processes.
- B. A PDB can have a private temp tablespace.
- C. PDBs can share the sysaux tablespace.
- D. Log switches occur only at the multitenant container database (CDB) level.
- E. Different PDBs can have different default block sizes.
- F. PDBs share a common system tablespace.
- G. Instance recovery is always performed at the CDB level.
Answer : BDG
Explanation:
B:
* A PDB would have its SYSTEM, SYSAUX, TEMP tablespaces. It can also contain other user created tablespaces in it.
* There is one default temporary tablespace for the entire CDB. However, you can create additional temporary tablespaces in individual PDBs.
D:
* There is a single redo log and a single control file for an entire CDB
* A log switch is the point at which the database stops writing to one redo log file and begins writing to another. Normally, a log switch occurs when the current redo log file is completely filled and writing must continue to the next redo log file.
G: instance recovery -
The automatic application of redo log records to uncommitted data blocks when a database instance is restarted after a failure.
Incorrect:
Not A:
* There is one set of background processes shared by the root and all PDBs.
* High consolidation density. The many pluggable databases in a single container database share its memory and background processes, letting you operate many more pluggable databases on a particular platform than you can single databases that use the old architecture.
Not C: There is a separate SYSAUX tablespace for the root and for each PDB.
Not F: There is a separate SYSTEM tablespace for the root and for each PDB.
You notice that the elapsed time for an important database scheduler Job is unacceptably long.
The job belongs to a scheduler job class and window.
Which two actions would reduce the job's elapsed time? (Choose two.)
- A. Increasing the priority of the job class to which the job belongs
- B. Increasing the job's relative priority within the Job class to which it belongs
- C. Increasing the resource allocation for the consumer group mapped to the scheduler job's job class within the plan mapped to the scheduler window
- D. Moving the job to an existing higher priority scheduler window with the same schedule and duration
- E. Increasing the value of the JOB_QUEUE_PROCESSES parameter
- F. Increasing the priority of the scheduler window to which the job belongs
Answer : BC
Explanation:
B: Job priorities are used only to prioritize among jobs in the same class.
Note: Group jobs for prioritization
Within the same job class, you can assign priority values of 1-5 to individual jobs so that if two jobs in the class are scheduled to start at the same time, the one with the higher priority takes precedence. This ensures that you do not have a less important job preventing the timely completion of a more important one.
C: Set resource allocation for member jobs
Job classes provide the link between the Database Resource Manager and the Scheduler, because each job class can specify a resource consumer group as an attribute. Member jobs then belong to the specified consumer group and are assigned resources according to settings in the current resource plan.
You plan to migrate your database from a File system to Automata Storage Management (ASM) on same platform.
Which two methods or commands would you use to accomplish this task? (Choose two.)
- A. RMAN CONVERT command
- B. Data Pump Export and import
- C. Conventional Export and Import
- D. The BACKUP AS COPY DATABASE . . . command of RMAN
- E. DBMS_FILE_TRANSFER with transportable tablespace
Answer : AD
Explanation:
A:
1. Get the list of all datafiles.
Note: RMAN Backup of ASM Storage
There is often a need to move the files from the file system to the ASM storage and vice versa. This may come in handy when one of the file systems is corrupted by some means and then the file may need to be moved to the other file system.
D: Migrating a Database into ASM
* To take advantage of Automatic Storage Management with an existing database you must migrate that database into ASM. This migration is performed using
Recovery Manager (RMAN) even if you are not using RMAN for your primary backup and recovery strategy.
* Example:
Back up your database files as copies to the ASM disk group.
BACKUP AS COPY INCREMENTAL LEVEL 0 DATABASE
FORMAT '+DISK' TAG 'ORA_ASM_MIGRATION';
30 days access 